Hello!
I'm in a quandary about how to pronounce words like, puellā (versus puella), Latīnē (versus Latīne) and so on. I asked my teacher, who is a very experienced Italian (although I wouldn't call him reliable per sé :|) and he said he hasn't heard anyone pronounce puella and puellā differently. But I have a hard time swallowing that pill. Why would we add the macron (which, as far I understand, is a post-classical pedagogical invention) to differentiate between the abl. and nom., if they are homophonic?
I'm in a quandary about how to pronounce words like, puellā (versus puella), Latīnē (versus Latīne) and so on. I asked my teacher, who is a very experienced Italian (although I wouldn't call him reliable per sé :|) and he said he hasn't heard anyone pronounce puella and puellā differently. But I have a hard time swallowing that pill. Why would we add the macron (which, as far I understand, is a post-classical pedagogical invention) to differentiate between the abl. and nom., if they are homophonic?