Hello,
Two questions:
Would anyone by any chance know the historical factors that led to adjectives like prudens to have their ablative in -i for things and -e for humans ? How come it is limited to only -ns, -ntis adjectives and doesn't concern the others?
Incidentally, I wonder how animals are treated under this rule. Are they considered things? What about slaves?
Secondly, I also see that in the case of the absolute ablative, present participles always take -e.
I find this very confusing and wonder how I'm going to keep in mind that -i/-e distinction in normal cases while disregarding it in the case of an absolute ablative but *only* for present participles, assuming that adjectives keep the distinction within absolute ablative clauses. Any tips?
Thanks.
Two questions:
Would anyone by any chance know the historical factors that led to adjectives like prudens to have their ablative in -i for things and -e for humans ? How come it is limited to only -ns, -ntis adjectives and doesn't concern the others?
Incidentally, I wonder how animals are treated under this rule. Are they considered things? What about slaves?
Secondly, I also see that in the case of the absolute ablative, present participles always take -e.
I find this very confusing and wonder how I'm going to keep in mind that -i/-e distinction in normal cases while disregarding it in the case of an absolute ablative but *only* for present participles, assuming that adjectives keep the distinction within absolute ablative clauses. Any tips?
Thanks.
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