At Suet. Calig. 9 we have
Apud quos quantum praeterea per hanc nutrimentorum consuetudinem amore et gratia valuerit, maxime cognitum est, cum post excessum Augusti tumultuantis et in furorem usque praecipites solus haud dubie ex conspectu suo flexit
"tumultuantis ...praecipites " bothers me. Are they both accusative plural? if they are, why would Suetonius use different endings in the same sentence? Does the -is ending seem more appropriate to him with a present participle?
Apud quos quantum praeterea per hanc nutrimentorum consuetudinem amore et gratia valuerit, maxime cognitum est, cum post excessum Augusti tumultuantis et in furorem usque praecipites solus haud dubie ex conspectu suo flexit
"tumultuantis ...praecipites " bothers me. Are they both accusative plural? if they are, why would Suetonius use different endings in the same sentence? Does the -is ending seem more appropriate to him with a present participle?