Theophilia Hibernia

[BohemiaBlack]

The phrase theophilia, to my knowledge, means love of god. And Hibernia signifies Ireland.
Thus, would "love of the Irish god" be "Theophilia Hibernia" or "Theophilia Hibernica" or other variation? I witnessed other authors employ "Hibernica" as an adjective in other sources. Any ideas? Thank you.

 

[Aurifex]

The phrase theophilia, to my knowledge, means love of god. And Hibernia signifies Ireland.
Thus, would "love of the Irish god" be "Theophilia Hibernia" or "Theophilia Hibernica" or other variation?

Neither of those looks very promising.
The question is a complex one. Have a look here for information on the status of the word theophilia.

 

[Arca Defectionis]

The name "Θεόφιλος," found in Luke and Acts, is shrouded in ambiguity; we still don't know if Luke was addressing a real person named "Theophilos" or simply calling his reader "God-lover" (or "friend of God"). Its use in Latin is even more suspect than its use in Greek.

 

[BohemiaBlack]

Thank you for your contributions.

 

[Valentinian]

The name "Θεόφιλος," found in Luke and Acts, is shrouded in ambiguity; we still don't know if Luke was addressing a real person named "Theophilos" or simply calling his reader "God-lover" (or "friend of God"). Its use in Latin is even more suspect than its use in Greek.

Probably, he's telling it to someone named Theophilus. If he was referring to the reader generally, he'd say the title(without a capital T).
An article from wikipedia: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Theophilus_(biblical)

 

[Arca Defectionis]

Probably, he's telling it to someone named Theophilus. If he was referring to the reader generally, he'd say the title(without a capital T).
An article from wikipedia: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Theophilus_(biblical)

The capitalization and accentuation of the New Testament texts is, to my knowledge, entirely editorial. Various editions of the Greek New Testament differ in whether they capitalize, for instance, θεός, or put accents/ breathing marks on the various Aramaisms. As far as I know, the original manuscripts were written in unaccented capitals (example (Hebrews)). So whether or not the evangelist used a capital letter is an artificial distinction.

My first impression upon reading it was that it was a title, though my edition did capitalize it. I don't think we can ever know for sure, but my hunch is that Θεόφιλος was not a personal name - it certainly sounds like an unusual name anyways.

 

[Valentinian]

The capitalization and accentuation of the New Testament texts is, to my knowledge, entirely editorial. Various editions of the Greek New Testament differ in whether they capitalize, for instance, θεός, or put accents/ breathing marks on the various Aramaisms. As far as I know, the original manuscripts were written in unaccented capitals (example (Hebrews)). So whether or not the evangelist used a capital letter is an artificial distinction.

My first impression upon reading it was that it was a title, though my edition did capitalize it. I don't think we can ever know for sure, but my hunch is that Θεόφιλος was not a personal name - it certainly sounds like an unusual name anyways.

Yes, you're right. It is believed that in the Scriptorium of the monastery of Stoudios(Constantinople) the minuscule writing style was systemized in the 9th century a.d, for copying books faster. Before this, there were used only capital letters like the ancient manuscripts. This is why the minuscule writing style was also named "stouditic writing". The oldest surviving manuscript of manuscule writing style which was produced in the Stoudios monastery, is the "Uspenski Gospels", which is now in Saint Petersburg's national library.