I was reading a sentence from Familia Romana and it got me thinking on the imperfect tense. Here is the sentence: 'Nōnne intellegis nōn modo amōrem nostrum, sed etiam familiam tempore augērī?'. I was wondering how this would be expressed if the 'augērī' were to be imperfect, as there is no imperfect infinitive. Would you simply revert to saying it how you would say it if there was no 'intellegis' and you were stating it as it is?
(On a side note I realised the amorem and familiam are in the accusative, despite using passive augeri, I'm assuming this is because it is part of the the complimentary infinitive, so it is the accusative with respect to intellegis?)
Sorry if I am being stupid and have overlooked something obvious about the structure or something; just getting back into my independent Latin studies and couldn't find anything on this online.
(On a side note I realised the amorem and familiam are in the accusative, despite using passive augeri, I'm assuming this is because it is part of the the complimentary infinitive, so it is the accusative with respect to intellegis?)
Sorry if I am being stupid and have overlooked something obvious about the structure or something; just getting back into my independent Latin studies and couldn't find anything on this online.