I am reading Tremalius' Latin Bible from 1580 and he keeps using omneis. looks accusative plural. I can't find this anywhere. Im assuming its a misspelling or alternate form of omnes/omnia but I want to be sure. has anyone else come across this?
Omneis
- Thread starter jacktthekilns
- Start date
The accusative plural of masculine and feminine words of the third declension can have both -es and -is as endings, so he probably treated it as a diphthong instead.
An older variant for some long i, yes. Classical Lat. <ī> is thought to root from PIE <*ei>, in cases where it renders also <ει> in Greek.
But classical Latin <ī> also roots from PIE <*iH> (i immediately followed by any of the so-called laryngeals)... In such case, you'll not find -I presume- <ei> as a variant in ancient Latin or in proto-Italic inscriptions.
I would say that <ei> becoming <ī> isn't that much different than <ai> and <oi> ending as <e> in inscriptions (through <ae> > <æ> and <oe> > <œ>, respectively).
To spell it <ei> in a 1580's Bible might perhaps be a way to indicate the pronunciation without marking diacritics such as <î> or <ī>, couldn't?
But classical Latin <ī> also roots from PIE <*iH> (i immediately followed by any of the so-called laryngeals)... In such case, you'll not find -I presume- <ei> as a variant in ancient Latin or in proto-Italic inscriptions.
I would say that <ei> becoming <ī> isn't that much different than <ai> and <oi> ending as <e> in inscriptions (through <ae> > <æ> and <oe> > <œ>, respectively).
To spell it <ei> in a 1580's Bible might perhaps be a way to indicate the pronunciation without marking diacritics such as <î> or <ī>, couldn't?
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