As someone self-learning Latin I'm confused as to the tense of cupiam (indicative future or subjunctive present), and why, in the following Martial epigram
Nīl mihi dās vīvus; dīcis post fāta datūrum:
sī nōn es stultus, scīs, Maro, quid cupiam!
It's given in Wheelock chapter 30. At that point the only subjunctive constructions that have been introduced are jussive, purpose clause, result clause and indirect question and I can't map any of them onto the epigram. However, the present tense seems to be more appropriate to the translation than a future indicative tense. Any help appreciated.
Nīl mihi dās vīvus; dīcis post fāta datūrum:
sī nōn es stultus, scīs, Maro, quid cupiam!
It's given in Wheelock chapter 30. At that point the only subjunctive constructions that have been introduced are jussive, purpose clause, result clause and indirect question and I can't map any of them onto the epigram. However, the present tense seems to be more appropriate to the translation than a future indicative tense. Any help appreciated.