late regem???

massimo.p

Civis

  • Civis

In the Aeneid, one finds this sentence:

hinc populum late regem belloque superbum
venturum excidio Libyae.


The problem is with the late regem. It's usually translated as "reigning (or ruling) widely..." One find's an interesting grammatical explanation of this from Archibald Maclardy in his translation with grammatical notes:
"Certain Nouns of verbal origin, particularly those ending in “tor,” e.g., victor, are sometimes employed appositively to limit another noun. Thus, late regem is equivalent to late regnantem; compare the well-known example from Horace, late tyrannus.

For some reason, I cannot quite wrap my head around this. Is regem a noun being used as an appositive (with adjectival force) to populum instead of using the adjective regnantem?

I'm hoping for a more coherent explanation (assuming one exists). My limited capacity for grammatical oddities requires it.
 

Pacifica

grammaticissima

  • Aedilis

Location:
Belgium
(For a technical correction, regnantem is a participle rather than an adjective; but it doesn't really matter.)
 

AoM

nulli numeri

  • Civis Illustris

It's not a pure adjective (like, e.g., regium), but a verbal adjective. Though as Pacifica said, not really an important distinction here.

And hey, thanks to your post, I learned the term for this: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Anthimeria
 

massimo.p

Civis

  • Civis

Thank you both. it's nice to know that I have finally offered a post that was helpful to others, since I'm always the one being helped.
 
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