The note in one of the books I have (Henry T Riley 1889) said that it went on to become an idiom. It does say some other things though that I am not convinced about.I'm not sure that's an idiom.
I don't think that's quite right: hóc(c) habet with a stressed and deictic hoc is equvialent to hóc est = perāctum est, something like "that's it, that'll do it" in the same one-place construction as bene (sē) habet, male habet (= bene/male est). Just hábet on the other hand, either means "he's had it", as in Russian получи́(л) "have at you!", or it refers to the woman who's caught the man - thus a Loeb. I think Donatus confuses the two when he comments on Terence's line.hoc habet (Aen. 12.296)
L&S says it's gladiatorial terminology for a wounded fighter (i.e., "he's hit").
Though I guess it's more of a colloquialism.
That's wrong and AoM is actually right with his explanation.I don't think that's quite right: hóc(c) habet with a stressed and deictic hoc is equvialent to hóc est = perāctum est
Some elaboration on why Servius is wrong and L&S (it's their explanation) is right will be appreciated. To my mind, the deictic hoc in hoc habet makes that interpretation impossible. In fact, going by the English you'd expect "he has this" to equal "he's winning". Compare against "he's had it" with an obligatory, non-referential dummy pronoun that leaves it to imagination what exactly he's had.That's wrong and AoM is actually right with his explanation.
Because the passage you linked to confirmed exactly what AoM was saying.Some elaboration on why Servius is wrong and L&S (it's their explanation) is right will be appreciated.
It also confirms what I'm saying right after that, so that doesn't do much to decide which is wrong and which is not. This edition of Servius' commentary says in the preface that Donatus served as one of his main sources, so that could explain the "vulnere" thing in both. My contention was that "perāctum est", as here and here, is the primary meaning of hoc habet, and "mortuus est" is tranferred from this. I'm not so sure about the opposite transfer, unless you mean that these are two separate and unrelated expressions. I can see how the hoc can refer to the latest or the following mortal blow. It can even be that "perāctum est" interpretation is spurious. In that case the two Plautine examples should be interpreted differently - here a Loeb introduces person switch. In any case, I seem to be giving the elaborations that I wanted to receive.Because the passage you linked to confirmed exactly what AoM was saying.
I'm sure you do, but I'm not entirely sure what you're talking about. hoc habet was a colloquial term used among spectators in the arena when somebody was hit, and your reference even confirmed that. The connotation "it's over" when somebody has received a lethal wound is rather obvious, but that's all both AoM and your source were saying.I seem to be giving the elaborations that I wanted to receive.