Cujus, grammar

Paul S.

New Member

Location:
UK
In Mozart's beautiful song "Ave verum corpus", I read the following lyric: "cujus latus perforatum fluxit aqua et sanguine."
But "latus" is neuter, not masculine! So why is the Latin not "CUJUM latus perforatum..."?
 

Pacifica

grammaticissima

  • Aedilis

Location:
Belgium
Because this cuius is the genitive singular form of qui/quae/quod. So it means "whose". There is also an adjective cuius/cuia/cuium with the same meaning, but it's much less common than the genitive pronoun.
 

Paul S.

New Member

Location:
UK
Thank you for the clarification. I was looking at the adjective cuius/cuia/cuium.
So I suppose that grammatically either either "cuius" (relative pronoun) or "cuium" (adjective) would be correct in that sentence. I didn't know that the adjectival from was much less common.
 

Clemens

Aedilis

  • Aedilis

Location:
Maine, United States.
I had no idea cuius had an adjectival form, so I looked on wiktionary and found this:

Tītyre, sī toga calda tibi est, quō tegmine fāgī?
Dīc mihi, Dāmoetā, 'cuium pecus' anne Latīnum?
Nōn, vērum Aegōnis nostrī; sīc rūre locuntur.
 

Pacifica

grammaticissima

  • Aedilis

Location:
Belgium
I'm guessing for Plautus and Terence they're not archaisms, but just how their language was. What do you think?
Yes. I mean it had become an archaism by the classical period. Plautus and Terence = archaic authors.
 
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