It's been a while since I posted one of these -- so time for another chart! 
Recently I learned a large number of various forms (infinitives, participles, gerund, etc.) constructed from the four principal parts. I found myself having some difficulty remembering which form was built on which part (and how!), and finally got tired of looking them up, so I made this.
I've shown here anything (that I know of) which is derived from one of the principal parts, and isn't itself a finite verb form. This includes:
- Participles (past, present, future);
- Infinitives (past, present, and future);
- Gerund and gerundive;
- and for good measure, I tossed in the Supine (which I haven't formally learned yet, but whatever, it doesn't look overly complex.)
The chart is pretty self-explanatory. Forms with an active meaning are listed in red while those with a passive meaning are listed in blue. I chose the verb amō, amāre, amāvī, amātum mainly because it was the one my textbook used for most of its examples; but you can use any model verb you'd like. (Just be aware that a few of the forms are constructed with ē or e (instead of ā or a) for Conjugations 2-4; I've shown this in italics in the relevant places.)
And the usual disclaimer: I'm still a student and this is just my own best attempt to create a study aid for myself. I've done my best to ensure the information here is accurate, but I cannot guarantee it. If you spot any mistakes or omissions (or simply have any comments/feedback!) please let me know!
And now, a couple questions for the experts here (hey, you knew they were coming, right?)
- I would have expected all active forms to be constructed from a single principal part (e.g. 2nd) and all passive forms to be constructed from another (e.g. 4th.) In fact, though, there isn't any clear separation between the two (for example, the future active participle/infinitive is constructed from the 4th principal part and looks quite similar to the passive past participle/infinitive -- and the gerund/gerundive are nearly identical!) How did this come about, historically? I'm curious...
- The supine and accusative form of the gerund (with ad) seem to cover more or less the same range of uses: "for the purpose of/in order to doing X." Why do two separate forms exist at all? And is one more commonly used than the other? (Or am I wrong and there's a subtle difference in meaning here that I'm not seeing yet...)
Thanks!
Recently I learned a large number of various forms (infinitives, participles, gerund, etc.) constructed from the four principal parts. I found myself having some difficulty remembering which form was built on which part (and how!), and finally got tired of looking them up, so I made this.
I've shown here anything (that I know of) which is derived from one of the principal parts, and isn't itself a finite verb form. This includes:
- Participles (past, present, future);
- Infinitives (past, present, and future);
- Gerund and gerundive;
- and for good measure, I tossed in the Supine (which I haven't formally learned yet, but whatever, it doesn't look overly complex.)
The chart is pretty self-explanatory. Forms with an active meaning are listed in red while those with a passive meaning are listed in blue. I chose the verb amō, amāre, amāvī, amātum mainly because it was the one my textbook used for most of its examples; but you can use any model verb you'd like. (Just be aware that a few of the forms are constructed with ē or e (instead of ā or a) for Conjugations 2-4; I've shown this in italics in the relevant places.)
And the usual disclaimer: I'm still a student and this is just my own best attempt to create a study aid for myself. I've done my best to ensure the information here is accurate, but I cannot guarantee it. If you spot any mistakes or omissions (or simply have any comments/feedback!) please let me know!
And now, a couple questions for the experts here (hey, you knew they were coming, right?)
- I would have expected all active forms to be constructed from a single principal part (e.g. 2nd) and all passive forms to be constructed from another (e.g. 4th.) In fact, though, there isn't any clear separation between the two (for example, the future active participle/infinitive is constructed from the 4th principal part and looks quite similar to the passive past participle/infinitive -- and the gerund/gerundive are nearly identical!) How did this come about, historically? I'm curious...
- The supine and accusative form of the gerund (with ad) seem to cover more or less the same range of uses: "for the purpose of/in order to doing X." Why do two separate forms exist at all? And is one more commonly used than the other? (Or am I wrong and there's a subtle difference in meaning here that I'm not seeing yet...)
Thanks!