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Pacifica

grammaticissima

  • Aedilis

Location:
Belgium
Ipse navem ipsam navigavit = he himself sailed the ship itself.
Navis se navigavit = the ship sailed itself.
In theory yes, although it's rare for navigo to take an object, as I said (and when it does, the object is usually the sea or the like; for it to be a ship is really extra rare).
 

john abshire

Well-Known Member

  • Patronus

In theory yes, although it's rare for navigo to take an object, as I said (and when it does, the object is usually the sea or the like; for it to be a ship is really extra rare).
That’s good to know and I hope that I can remember. I was most concerned with the proper use of se and ipse.
 

john abshire

Well-Known Member

  • Patronus

In theory yes, although it's rare for navigo to take an object, as I said (and when it does, the object is usually the sea or the like; for it to be a ship is really extra rare).
When you say that navigo rarely takes a direct object and that id ipsum is common, I assume you are referring to writings of Roman authors?

It almost seems that marem navigavit, mare should be mari, because what is being sailed is a ship, it is on the sea. Maybe “in mari navigavit”, he sailed on the sea”. But English has its quirks too.
 

Pacifica

grammaticissima

  • Aedilis

Location:
Belgium
When you say that navigo rarely takes a direct object and that id ipsum is common, I assume you are referring to writings of Roman authors?
Yes.
It almost seems that marem navigavit
The accusative is mare since it's neuter.

Mari navigavit and in mari navigavit are correct too (and the former would probably be the most common of all three options).
 

john abshire

Well-Known Member

  • Patronus

Yes.

The accusative is mare since it's neuter.

Mari navigavit and in mari navigavit are correct too (and the former would probably be the most common of all three options).
Mari navigavit; is that “on the sea” (ablative) or “to the sea”, “(indirectly) the sea” (dative)?
 

Pacifica

grammaticissima

  • Aedilis

Location:
Belgium
It's ablative so "on the sea" or "by (way of) the sea".
 

john abshire

Well-Known Member

  • Patronus

It's ablative so "on the sea" or "by (way of) the sea".
That’s what I was thinking but at first I thought dative, as in “he was sailing the sea”; “he was sailing….. (a ship = direct object) the sea
(indirectly = dative of?).” But ablative makes more sense. He was sailing (on) the sea., or he was sailing (by means of) the sea.
Thank you.
 
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