τὸ χορηγεῖν δύνασθαι etc.

[Pacifica]

That's an original Greek text along with its Latin translation, from here. The Latin clearly says that Jesus was able to bestow on the saints 1) the Holy Spirit and 2) the ability to work miracles. But is that what the Greek means, or is the Greek rather saying that Jesus was able 1) to bestow the Holy Spirit on the saints and 2) himself to work miracles through that same spirit? I've noticed mistakes in these Latin translations from Greek before so I don't entirely trust them; but at the same time, their author(s) probably still knew Greek better than I do and in this particular instance I don't entirely trust myself either. So if anyone more proficient in Greek could remove my doubt one way or the other (or just tell me that the Greek is ambiguous), that'd be great!

 

[Dantius]

I think you are correct in your interpretation of the Greek; I would've expected τὸ Πνεῦμα... καὶ τὸ δυνάμεις ἐνεργεῖν if those were being coordinated as objects of χορηγεῖν, so I think it is more likely that χορηγεῖν and ἐνεργεῖν are coordinated as complements of δύνασθαι. Supporting this, Galatians 3:5 has "ὁ οὖν ἐπιχορηγῶν ὑμῖν τὸ πνεῦμα καὶ ἐνεργῶν δυνάμεις ἐν ὑμῖν."

 

[Pacifica]

Thanks. You rock.