I've been working steadily through "Greek Prose Composition" by North and Hillard, in an attempt to improve my ancient Greek. I have an answer key, and though when my answer differs from it I generally understand why, there are a few places here and there where I can't see their logic.
Today it was Exercise 41 #3 (indirect statement with ὅτι):
English: It is reported that the enemy have fled.
My answer: ἀγγέλεται ὅτι οἱ πολεμίοι ἔφυγον.
Their answer: ἀγγέλεται ὅτι οἱ πολεμίοι πεφεύγασιν.
Why the perfect? "The enemy have fled" hardly seems to be the sort of enduring statement that calls for the perfect. Maybe if the enemy had permanently fled, never to return, but that's not implied here. Any thoughts?
Today it was Exercise 41 #3 (indirect statement with ὅτι):
English: It is reported that the enemy have fled.
My answer: ἀγγέλεται ὅτι οἱ πολεμίοι ἔφυγον.
Their answer: ἀγγέλεται ὅτι οἱ πολεμίοι πεφεύγασιν.
Why the perfect? "The enemy have fled" hardly seems to be the sort of enduring statement that calls for the perfect. Maybe if the enemy had permanently fled, never to return, but that's not implied here. Any thoughts?